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Free and Premium Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 305 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

Options:

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

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Question 2

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

Options:

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

Question 3

When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

Options:

A.

The CSP server facility

B.

The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud

C.

The network components controlled by the CSP

D.

The CSP office spaces

E.

Their own virtual instances in the cloud

Question 4

In which type of environment is it impractical to allow the customer to conduct their own audit, making it important that the data center operators are required to provide auditing for the customers?

Options:

A.

Multi-application, single tenant environments

B.

Long distance relationships

C.

Multi-tenant environments

D.

Distributed computing arrangements

E.

Single tenant environments

Question 5

Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

Options:

A.

Code Review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Functional Testing

E.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

Question 6

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

Options:

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

Question 7

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

Question 8

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

Question 9

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

Options:

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

Question 10

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

Options:

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

Question 11

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

Options:

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

Question 12

An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to

Options:

A.

Obtain provider permission for test

B.

Use techniques to evade cloud provider’s detection systems

C.

Use application layer testing tools exclusively

D.

Use network layer testing tools exclusively

E.

Schedule vulnerability test at night

Question 13

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 14

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

Options:

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

Question 15

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

Options:

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

Question 16

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

Options:

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

Question 17

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

Options:

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

Question 18

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 19

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes

Options:

A.

Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity.

B.

An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters.

C.

An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes.

D.

Attributes are made unique by their identities.

E.

Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

Question 20

Why is it essential to include key metrics and periodic reassessment in cybersecurity governance?

Options:

A.

To meet legal requirements and avoid fines

B.

To ensure effective and continuous improvement of security measures

C.

To document all cybersecurity incidents and monitor them overtime

D.

To reduce the number of security incidents to zero

Question 21

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

Options:

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

Question 22

What is a potential concern of using Security-as-a-Service (SecaaS)?

Options:

A.

Lack of visibility

B.

Deployment flexibility

C.

Scaling and costs

D.

Intelligence sharing

E.

Insulation of clients

Question 23

How can the use of third-party libraries introduce supply chain risks in software development?

Options:

A.

They are usually open source and do not require vetting

B.

They might contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited

C.

They fail to integrate properly with existing continuous integration pipelines

D.

They might increase the overall complexity of the codebase

Question 24

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Deploying cloud services

C.

Governing access to cloud resources

D.

Managing software licensing

Question 25

Which two key capabilities are required for technology to be considered cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Abstraction and orchestration

B.

Abstraction and resource pooling

C.

Multi-tenancy and isolation

D.

Virtualization and multi-tenancy

Question 26

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

Question 27

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?

Options:

A.

Virtualization

B.

Applistructure

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Metastructure

E.

Orchestration

Question 28

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

Question 29

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

Options:

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

Question 30

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

Options:

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

Question 31

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

Options:

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

Question 32

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

Options:

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

Question 33

Audits should be robustly designed to reflect best practice, appropriate resources, and tested protocols and standards. They should also use what type of auditors?

Options:

A.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud customer

B.

Independent auditors

C.

Certified by CSA

D.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud provider

E.

None of the above

Question 34

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 35

Which of the following best describes the advantage of custom application level encryption?

Options:

A.

It simplifies the encryption process by centralizing it at the network level

B.

It enables ownership and more granular control of encryption keys

C.

It reduces the need for encryption by enhancing network security

D.

It delegates the control of keys to third-party providers

Question 36

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

Options:

A.

A data destruction plan

B.

A communication plan

C.

A back-up website

D.

A spill remediation kit

E.

A rainy day fund

Question 37

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Question 38

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

Options:

A.

Forwarding plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Application plane

Question 39

Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 40

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

Options:

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

Question 41

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

Options:

A.

Volume storage

B.

Platform

C.

Database

D.

Application

E.

Object storage

Question 42

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

Options:

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

Question 43

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Options:

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

Question 44

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

Options:

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

Question 45

Why is it important to control traffic flows between networks in a cybersecurity context?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of data transmission

B.

To reduce the blast radius of attacks

C.

To simplify network architecture

D.

To reduce the amount of data stored

Question 46

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Question 47

What is resource pooling?

Options:

A.

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.

None of the above.

Question 48

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

Options:

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

Question 49

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

Question 50

What is a common characteristic of default encryption provided by cloud providers for data at rest?

Options:

A.

It is not available without an additional premium service

B.

It always requires the customer's own encryption keys

C.

It uses the cloud provider's keys, often at no additional cost

D.

It does not support encryption for data at rest

Question 51

Why is consulting with stakeholders important for ensuring cloud security strategy alignment?

Options:

A.

IT simplifies the cloud platform selection process

B.

It reduces the overall cost of cloud services.

C.

It ensures that the strategy meets diverse business requirements.

D.

It ensures compliance with technical standards only.

Question 52

CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in

their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system-system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.

B.

Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned ormanaged user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.

C.

All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.

D.

None of the above

Question 53

In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?

Options:

A.

The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.

B.

The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.

C.

The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.

D.

The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.

Question 54

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

Question 55

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Options:

A.

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.

Infrastructure Security

C.

Compliance and Audit Management

D.

Information Governance

E.

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Question 56

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

Options:

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

Question 57

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

Options:

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

Question 58

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 59

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

Question 60

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

Options:

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

Question 61

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

Options:

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

Question 62

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

Question 63

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 64

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

Options:

A.

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

Question 65

If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 66

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

Options:

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

Question 67

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 68

What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?

Options:

A.

To create isolated virtual networks

B.

To monitor network performance and activity

C.

To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations

D.

To encrypt data for secure transmission

Question 69

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

Question 70

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

Question 71

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

Options:

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

Question 72

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

Options:

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

Question 73

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

Options:

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

Question 74

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

Question 75

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

Options:

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

Question 76

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 77

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

Question 78

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 79

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

Options:

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

Question 80

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

Question 81

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

Question 82

Which of the following best describes the concept of Measured Service in cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud systems allocate a fixed immutable set of measured services to each customer.

B.

Cloud systems offer elastic resources.

C.

Cloud systems provide usage reports upon request, based on manual reporting.

D.

Cloud systems automatically monitor resource usage and provide billing based on actual consumption.

Question 83

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

Options:

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

Question 84

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 85

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

Options:

A.

Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure

B.

Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings

C.

Enforce isolation and configure the security settings

D.

Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

E.

Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads

Question 86

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

Options:

A.

Application logic

B.

Access controls

C.

Encryption solutions

D.

Physical destruction

E.

Asset management and tracking

Question 87

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

Options:

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

Question 88

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Question 89

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

Options:

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

Question 90

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Options:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

Question 91

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

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Total 305 questions