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Free and Premium ASHRM CPHRM Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 119 questions

Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Information from the Data Bank (NPDB; includes former HIPDB content) can be requested by:

Options:

A.

Any member of the public

B.

Professional societies with formal peer review (as permitted)

C.

Social media investigators

D.

Patients requesting a clinician’s full file

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Question 2

What group reports information (historically HIPDB content; now within NPDB) related to fraud/abuse oversight?

Options:

A.

Peer review organizations (for certain state/federal reporting categories)

B.

Any patient advocacy blog

C.

Restaurant inspectors

D.

School boards

Question 3

Which of the following factors should be considered when setting or adjusting indemnity reserves?

    incurred medical expenses

    emotional pain and suffering

    medical expert witness costs

    future cost of medical care

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

Question 4

What factors are included in a calculation of Risk Priority Number (RPN) in FMEA?

Options:

A.

Severity, occurrence (probability), detection

B.

Cost, staff satisfaction, marketing risk

C.

Legal privilege, media attention, reputation

D.

Insurance premiums, deductibles, coinsurance

Question 5

Supervisors who conduct job interviews may ask which of the following questions?

Options:

A.

Are you currently taking a prescription medication?

B.

Do you plan to have children?

C.

Can you meet the organization's attendance requirement?

D.

Are you a citizen of the United States?

Question 6

What in particular is the process chain in a laboratory subject to?

Options:

A.

Standardization only

B.

Variability across pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical phases

C.

Zero human factors influence

D.

Exclusively equipment failure

Question 7

An HMO advertises it is “the best” and its physicians can manage any illness/injury. A patient relies on this and is injured. The patient might sue the HMO for:

Options:

A.

Apparent agency / negligent misrepresentation / vicarious liability (depending on facts and jurisdiction)

B.

Only weather damage

C.

Only EMTALA penalties

D.

Only OSHA violations

Question 8

Ultimately, the accountability for the risk management program belongs to:

Options:

A.

The board

B.

The gift shop manager

C.

A single bedside nurse

D.

The parking contractor

Question 9

An intervention between parties to promote reconciliation, settlement, or compromise is

Options:

A.

an arbitration.

B.

a mediation.

C.

a jury trial.

D.

a judge trial.

Question 10

According to Joint Commission findings, what is a primary cause of wrong-site surgery?

Options:

A.

Communication failure

B.

Laundry delays

C.

Weather conditions

D.

Pharmacy stock-outs

Question 11

Which of the following are essential elements of a standard loss run?

Options:

A.

date, frequency, and severity

B.

common law, case law, and analysis

C.

date, expense, and indemnity

D.

date, location, and root cause analysis

Question 12

A hospital is a defendant in a recently filed lawsuit involving a child with seizures and flaccid paresis, allegedly arising from negligent care during delivery 10 years ago. The plaintiff is seeking $10 million. At the time of the alleged negligence, the hospital had first dollar coverage through a commercial carrier.

Which of the following steps should the risk manager take to determine coverage before discussion with the hospital CEO and CFO?

    Review the current policy and the policy in effect for the year the delivery occurred.

    Determine whether the applicable policy is occurrence or claims made.

    Identify co-defendants insurance coverage.

    Discuss the coverage issues with the defense lawyer.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 13

A physician dies upon arrival to the emergency department from her home following a gunshot wound to the chest. The police report a history of domestic violence. The organization is required to notify the

Options:

A.

state Board of Medicine.

B.

Department of Health and Family Services.

C.

Office of the Medical Examiner.

D.

organization's public relations department.

Question 14

Aside from clinical risk exposures, which of the following should be evaluated as part of a risk assessment concerning telemedicine?

Options:

A.

operational

B.

behavioral

C.

public awareness

D.

financial

Question 15

An organization's chief of orthopedics has scheduled an implant of a new artificial hip for the next day. The chief developed the artificial hip while working as a consultant for a medical device company. The device has not yet been approved by the FDA or the Institutional Review Board. The risk manager's best immediate course of action is to

Options:

A.

contact the FDA to clarify the status of the device.

B.

verify the informed consent for the procedure.

C.

call a special meeting of the Institutional Review Board.

D.

call the chief of surgery to discuss canceling the procedure.

Question 16

An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?

Options:

A.

The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of any patient, for any reason.

B.

The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of a patient, as long as that refusal is not based on insurance status or other financial concerns.

C.

The on-call physician is relieved of duty only if unavailable because of caring for another patient, or because of other circumstances outside the physician's control.

D.

The on-call physician is never relieved of duty to accept a patient needing specialized services.

Question 17

What are the types of quality problems identified by the Institute of Medicine’s Roundtable on Health Care Quality?

Options:

A.

Misuse, overuse, and underuse

B.

Abuse, fraud, and waste

C.

Timeliness, equity, and efficiency

D.

Access, cost, and satisfaction

Question 18

Which of the following is a program of the Food and Drug Administration FDA post market surveillance system for medical devices that requires healthcare facilities to report patient deaths or injuries related to a medical device?

Options:

A.

Safe Medical Devices Act SMDA

B.

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act EMTALA

C.

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 OSHA

D.

Patient Safety Organization PSO

Question 19

Which type of information was associated with the former HIPDB (now within NPDB) but not the original NPDB focus?

Options:

A.

Fraud/abuse-related actions and exclusions involving providers/suppliers (HIPDB purpose)

B.

Restaurant health inspections

C.

Public voter registration files

D.

School disciplinary actions

Question 20

The reporting requirements of the Safe Medical Devices Act SMDA apply to which of the following?

    nursing homes

    physician offices

    ambulatory surgery

    hospitals

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

Question 21

A hospital’s blood transfusions are99.7% error-free. Which function best estimates how many transfusions are likely before an error occurs?

Options:

A.

Geometric distribution (time until first failure)

B.

Multinomial distribution

C.

Chi-square test

D.

Linear regression

Question 22

When considering the proper insurance to purchase for an organization and its practitioners, a risk manager should understand which of the following about specific types of coverage?

Options:

A.

Occurrence coverage provides coverage for incidents that occur prior to initiation date of the policy as long as the event is reported to the insurer before signing.

B.

Occurrence coverage provides coverage for incidents that occur while the policy is in effect.

C.

With claims-made coverage, the retroactive date does not impact the coverage of the insured.

D.

With claims-made coverage, the nose period has no significance to the coverage of the insured.

Question 23

If there is no OSHA standard for a given potential health hazard, OSHA may:

Options:

A.

Govern it under the General Duty Clause

B.

Have no authority at all

C.

Transfer it to the FDA

D.

Ignore it if it is expensive

Question 24

A doctor fails to administer an indicated test, and the patient deteriorates and must be admitted. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Diagnostic error (delay/omission in diagnostic process)

B.

Risk financing error

C.

Contracting breach

D.

Facility security event

Question 25

The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 includes provisions to

    amend the Public Health Service Act to establish procedures for the voluntary confidential reporting of medical errors.

    enable the creation of patient safety organizations PSOs.

    require mandatory reporting to PSOs.

    classify patient safety work product reported to PSOs as privileged and confidential.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

Question 26

Which of the following concepts is integral to supporting a Safety Culture in a healthcare organization?

Options:

A.

disciplining an employee

B.

trending occurrences

C.

assigning blame

D.

speaking up

Question 27

A risk manager is reviewing the hospital’s incident reporting system and notices that very few medication errors are being reported despite known high volumes of medication administration. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

Options:

A.

Discipline staff members for failure to report errors.

B.

Conduct a root cause analysis on the reporting system.

C.

Assess the organizational culture and barriers to reporting.

D.

Notify the liability insurer immediately.

Question 28

Protecting outdoor air intakes can mitigate the risk of terrorists introducing airborne agents. Steps include:

Options:

A.

Relocate intakes higher; establish a security zone; add lighting and surveillance

B.

Paint the intake vents a different color

C.

Put a “No trespassing” sign only

D.

Reduce HVAC maintenance

Question 29

Which of the following wouldnotbe considered an emergency condition for EMTALA purposes (as a general example set)?

Options:

A.

Myocardial infarction

B.

Ruptured appendix

C.

Active labor with complications

D.

Stable chronic kidney failure without acute destabilization

Question 30

An indemnification clause in a contract is designed to

Options:

A.

create a forum to resolve contract disputes related to fulfillment of the contract terms.

B.

hold the other party responsible for fulfilling the terms of the contract.

C.

defer all legal costs to the other party in the case of harm, liability, or loss.

D.

clarify commitments to compensate the other party for harm, liability, or loss.

Question 31

What is one advantage of avoluntaryerror reporting system over amandatoryerror reporting system?

Options:

A.

Voluntary systems guarantee legal privilege in all states

B.

Voluntary systems typically elicit more frontline reports and near-misses

C.

Voluntary systems eliminate the need for root cause analysis

D.

Voluntary systems replace peer review and credentialing

Question 32

A claims manager needs to open a loss reserve and perform an investigation of an event. They review the patient demographics, the nature and extent of the injury, and other liability factors. Which of the following would be helpful to the claims manager in determining a loss reserve?

Options:

A.

comparable verdicts in the county

B.

the surgery center's claims history

C.

the patient's total medical bills

D.

amount of insurance allowed per occurrence

Question 33

All of the following are examples of an adverse drug event EXCEPT

Options:

A.

administration of a drug by the wrong route.

B.

a drug reaction experienced by the patient.

C.

controlled substance inventory discrepancy.

D.

an error in ordering or dispensing a drug.

Question 34

Which of the following should be the primary consideration when designing a new risk management program for a facility?

Options:

A.

size of the facility

B.

type of insurance the facility carries

C.

history of the facility

D.

mission and vision of the facility

Question 35

An employer is not required to offer a reasonable accommodation to a job applicant with a qualified disability unless

Options:

A.

the applicant proves the disability.

B.

withholding the reasonable accommodation creates an unsafe condition.

C.

the applicant requests the accommodation.

D.

the employer recognizes that the accommodation is necessary.

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Total 119 questions