Free and Premium AAPC CPC Dumps Questions Answers

1. Procedure Details and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient is undergoing stage 2 treatment for double outlet right ventricle (DORV) with a removal of the pulmonary artery band and transposition repair of the great vessels.

Code 33779 is specific for correction of a double outlet right ventricle, with transposition of the great arteries. This code accurately reflects the procedure performed, including the complex repair involving the transposition of the pulmonary trunk and aortic root.

Code 33953 is used to report the initiation of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO), which was used to maintain oxygenation during the procedure.

Code 33985 is for the termination of ECMO following the surgical repair once heart function has resumed. Both 33953 and 33985 accurately document the initiation and termination of ECMO during this complex heart repair.

2. Modifier Selection:

Modifier 78 (unplanned return to the operating room for a related procedure during the postoperative period) is appropriate here. This is a subsequent stage in the treatment plan, but due to the complexity and specific surgical intervention required, it is treated as a return to the OR for related procedure coding.

Modifier 58 (staged or related procedure during the postoperative period) would not be as suitable here because the procedure involves a new return to the OR.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines support the use of specific modifiers (78 for unplanned return) and appropriate ECMO codes (33953 and 33985) in complex cardiac cases requiring bypass and staged treatment.

Thus, the correct CPT® codes based on CPT® and AAPC coding standards are C. 33779-78, 33953-78, 33985-78.

The Office of Inspector General (OIG) operates under the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and is specifically responsible for detecting, investigating, and preventing fraud, waste, and abuse in federal healthcare programs such as Medicare and Medicaid.

This is a key compliance and regulatory topic on the CPC exam.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient initially underwent a laparoscopic total abdominal hysterectomy for endometriosis of the uterus. However, due to extensive adhesions, the surgeon converted the procedure to an open total abdominal hysterectomy to complete the surgery.

CPT® Code 58150 is appropriate for a total abdominal hysterectomy, including removal of the uterus and cervix, via an open approach. Since the procedure was converted to an open approach, 58150 is the correct code.

The -22 modifier is added to indicate increased procedural services due to the extensive adhesiolysis (removal of adhesions), which extended the surgery duration.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code N80.00 is used for endometriosis of the uterus, which is the primary condition that prompted the hysterectomy.

ICD-10-CM Code N73.6 is appropriate for female pelvic peritoneal adhesions, reflecting the extensive adhesions that necessitated the conversion to open surgery.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 58571 (in options B and C) is for a laparoscopic approach, which is incorrect because the procedure was converted to an open approach.

The -78 modifier is incorrect in this context because the conversion to open surgery was part of the same operative session and not an unplanned return to the OR.

Diagnosis code N99.4 (in options B and D) pertains to postprocedural pelvic adhesions, which does not apply here as the adhesions were not due to a prior procedure.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines specify using 58150 for an open total abdominal hysterectomy and adding the -22 modifier for increased complexity or time due to factors like extensive adhesiolysis.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM guidelines is A. 58150-22, N80.00, N73.6.

The emergent endovascular repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm with an aorto-aortic tube endograft is coded with CPT 34702. This code includes the deployment of the endograft and the necessary balloon angioplasty for sealing the proximal and distal attachment zones.

99213-25 = E/M with separate procedure

87880 = Rapid strep test

J02.0 = Streptococcal pharyngitis

Symptoms are not reported with definitive diagnosis

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a pulmonary function test that included spirometry, vital capacity, breathing capacity, and flow volume measurements before and after bronchodilator administration.

CPT® Code 94060 is for spirometry, including the bronchodilator responsiveness testing, which involves capturing pre- and post-bronchodilator measurements. This code accurately reflects the testing performed.

CPT® Code 94010 is for spirometry testing without bronchodilator, which might be considered redundant in this case since 94060 encompasses spirometry testing with and without bronchodilator. However, some practices may code both, but generally, 94060 alone should suffice.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code J45.901 is used for unspecified asthma with acute exacerbation. This code is appropriate given that the diagnosis indicates intermittent asthma with exacerbation.

J45.21 represents mild intermittent asthma without the specification of exacerbation, making it less accurate than J45.901 in this context.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 94070 (options B and C) is for bronchospasm provocation testing, which does not apply to standard pulmonary function testing with bronchodilator responsiveness.

Option D includes J45.21, which does not capture the exacerbation aspect and is therefore incorrect.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 94060 should be used when pre- and post-bronchodilator spirometry is performed, and J45.901 is appropriate for asthma with exacerbation.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 94060, 94010, J45.901.

The correct answer is A. 72050. Modifier 26 is used to report the professional component of a service when the provider performs only the physician work portion, such as interpretation and report, and not the technical portion of the service. This modifier is commonly applicable to diagnostic services that may be divided into professional and technical components. Radiology services are the classic example because one entity may perform the imaging study using equipment and staff, while a physician separately interprets the images and issues the report. Medicare guidance also describes modifier 26 as appropriate when a physician interprets a test but does not perform the technical portion, especially for radiology services such as X-rays.

Code 72050 is a diagnostic radiology CPT® code for a cervical spine X-ray study, which supports a professional and technical component split. By contrast, 99283 is an emergency department E/M code, 90460 is immunization administration, and 93042 already represents interpretation/report work, so modifier 26 is not the best choice for those options.

Reference topics: CPC Modifiers; CPT Appendix A Modifier 26; Radiology Coding; Professional Component versus Technical Component.

The patient is undergoing a cardiac catheterization with a CRNA providing monitored anesthesia care (MAC). Code 00520 is for anesthesia for heart catheterization procedures. Modifier QX indicates CRNA service with medical direction by a physician, QS indicates MAC, and P5 indicates a patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Thus, the correct code and modifier combination is 00520-QX-QS-P5.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure described is a craniectomy to access and remove a supratentorial intracerebral hematoma using a suction device.

CPT® Code 61314 is specific for a craniectomy or craniotomy for evacuation of a hematoma, supratentorial (within the upper portion of the brain), and includes any required dural repair and closure. This code precisely describes the procedure performed to remove the hematoma.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 61154 is used for a burr hole procedure for the evacuation of a hematoma, which is a less invasive approach and does not involve a craniectomy.

Code 61313 is for a craniectomy or craniotomy to evacuate an infratentorial hematoma, which is located in the lower portion of the brain (posterior fossa) and is not applicable here.

Code 61312 is for evacuation of an epidural or subdural hematoma and does not apply to an intracerebral hematoma as described in this case.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 61314 is the appropriate code for craniectomy procedures aimed at removing supratentorial intracerebral hematomas, as it covers the full scope of the documented procedure.

Thus, the correct answer is A. 61314.

U07.1 = COVID-19

J12.82 = Pneumonia due to COVID-19This follows COVID-19 coding guidelines for confirmed cases.

The procedure documented is a modified Fontan procedure → 33615 (Fontan-type single-ventricle repair per the choices given).

The congenital diagnosis documented is double inlet ventricle → Q20.2.

Why the other options are incorrect based on the statements provided:

Q20.4 is not “double inlet ventricle” as stated in the question.

Adding Q20.1 is not supported by the documentation (the question only states double inlet ventricle).

Therefore, the best match is 33615, Q20.2 → A.

The Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract is a specific surgical procedure that involves connecting the biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract.

Procedure Description: Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct involves creating a direct connection between the biliary duct and the gastrointestinal tract.

Procedure Specificity: The procedure is complex and involves extensive surgical technique and anastomosis.

Coding Decision:

CPT® 47780 specifically describes the Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on biliary and gastrointestinal procedures.

The documentation describes making a skin incision off the tip of the twelfth rib and extending medially along the banger’s lines of the skin. The use of electrocautery to gain access through multiple layers of musculature and fascia indicates an open surgical approach. Open surgery involves making a large incision to expose and directly view the surgical site. This is distinct from percutaneous (which involves needles or catheters), laparoscopic (which uses small incisions and a camera), and other minimally invasive techniques.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS Level II (current year)

82252 = Bilirubin, feces

82247/82248 = Serum bilirubin

82239 = Fecal fat

The correct answer is A. In the back of the upper leg between the hip and thigh. The hamstrings are a group of muscles located in the posterior thigh, meaning the back portion of the upper leg. Anatomically, the hamstring group includes the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles. These muscles extend from the pelvis region toward the knee and are primarily responsible for knee flexion and assisting with hip extension. In coding and medical terminology, identifying the correct anatomical location is important because musculoskeletal diagnoses, injuries, repairs, injections, imaging, and rehabilitation services depend on accurate body-region terminology.

The other options describe incorrect anatomical areas. The front of the upper leg is the anterior thigh, mainly associated with the quadriceps muscles. The front of the lower leg refers to the shin or anterior leg compartment. The back of the lower leg is the calf region, which contains muscles such as the gastrocnemius and soleus, not the hamstrings.

Reference topics: CPC Medical Terminology and Anatomy — Musculoskeletal System; Lower Extremity Anatomy; Muscle Groups and Body Regions.

CPT Code 62290: Discography, lumbar, single or multiple levels, radiological supervision and interpretation

This code accurately describes the procedure performed. The documentation indicates a lumbar discography was performed at a single level (L3-4) with radiological supervision (C-arm visualization).

ICD-10-CM Code M54.50: Low back pain, unspecified

This code is the most appropriate diagnosis based on the documentation. The preoperative diagnosis states " Low back pain possible spinal stenosis L3-4. " While spinal stenosis was considered, it was not confirmed. The postoperative diagnosis indicates no evidence of spinal stenosis or discogenic pathology. Therefore, the definitive diagnosis is low back pain.

Why other options are incorrect:

62292: This code is for a discography with injection of contrast and/or medication for therapeutic purposes. The documentation doesn ' t indicate any therapeutic injection was performed.

M48.061 and M48.07: These codes represent spinal stenosis, which was not confirmed in the postoperative diagnosis.

55970 = Female-to-male sex transformation

55980 is for male-to-female transformation

Unlisted codes (58999, 55899) are not used when a specific CPT® code exists

Procedure Code:

90945 – Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT), daily

Includes repeated low-level E/M monitoring

Correct for CVVH

Diagnosis Codes:

I10 – Essential hypertension

N18.9 – Chronic kidney disease, unspecified

Why others are incorrect:

90935 / 90937 – Intermittent hemodialysis

90947 – Pediatric CRRT

ICD-9 codes (112.9, 110) are invalid

This is aninitial hospital/observation evaluation(first visit during the stay), so the correct code family is theinitial observation/inpatient E/Mlevel. The stem providestotal time = 85 minutesand also statesmoderate MDM. Under current E/M rules, you can select the code based oneither MDM or total time(when time is used, it includes the physician’s qualifying time on that date). The time of85 minutesfits the time range for99223(the highest initial hospital/observation level by time) even if MDM is described as moderate. The prolonged service add-on99418requires meeting the threshold beyond the primary code’s time before it can be added; with 85 minutes, you do not reach the additional increment needed to report 99418. Therefore, you report99223 only. CPC exam tip: when time is explicitly provided and is high, it often drives the level; do not add prolonged time unless the documented time clearly exceeds the primary code’s requirement by the necessary increment.

CPT® code 36252 describes selective catheter placement of the main renal artery with angiography of both kidneys, which matches the procedure of selectively catheterizing the right and left renal arteries and performing angiography. Additionally, CPT® code 75625-26 is for an abdominal aortography with interpretation and report. The -26 modifier indicates that the professional component of the service was performed.

The procedure involves a right nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy for a nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.

Procedure Description:

Right nephrectomy (removal of the kidney).

Partial ureterectomy (removal of part of the ureter).

CPT® Coding:

50220: Nephrectomy, including partial ureterectomy, any open approach.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on nephrectomy procedures.

33779 = Arterial switch operation (definitive repair)

33955 = Open central cannulation for ECMO

33985 = ECMO management

Modifier -58 = staged/related procedure

Modifier selection for discontinued procedures depends onsettingandhow far the procedure progressed. In the CPT modifier framework,-53(Discontinued Procedure) is used when a physician terminates a procedure due toextenuating circumstances or those that threaten the well-being of the patientafter the procedure has begun. Here, anesthesia was given, the incision was made, and then respiratory distress occurred—clearly a patient safety issue requiring stopping the surgery. That matches modifier-53for the surgeon’s claim. Modifier-74is afacilitymodifier (commonly used by ambulatory surgery centers/hospitals for discontinued outpatient procedures after anesthesia), not the surgeon’s CPT modifier in the typical CPC context. Modifier-47indicates anesthesia by the surgeon, which is not the key fact here and does not represent discontinuation. Modifier-52is for reduced services when a service is partially reduced at the physician’s discretion, not terminated for patient safety. Therefore, the oral surgeon reports21060-53.

1. E/M Code Category Selection:

The patient was placed in observation care on 12/2/20XX for an acute asthma exacerbation and stayed in observation for a total of 16 hours, with discharge occurring on 12/3/20XX.

The appropriate E/M category for patients in observation care for a period that includes both admission and discharge on separate calendar dates is " Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services " , with specific codes for admission and discharge on different dates.

2. Code Range and Specific Codes:

Code Range 99234-99236 applies to cases where observation care includes both admission and discharge, particularly when they occur on different calendar days and the total duration of care is under 24 hours.

For discharge on the subsequent day, 99238-99239 (Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services) applies, depending on the time spent on discharge.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option B and Option D include Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99221-99223), which are typically used for admissions to inpatient care rather than for observation care scenarios as presented here.

Option C incorrectly combines Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99231-99233), which are used for follow-up days rather than discharge services.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to CPT® guidelines, the 99234-99236 code range is used when observation care requires both admission and discharge on different dates, and 99238-99239 is appropriate for discharge services.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239).

When a patient experiences an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction, the primary reason for the encounter would be the malfunction itself, which is coded first. The resulting hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia due to the pump failure is a secondary condition. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the code for the mechanical complication of the pump (T85.633-) is sequenced first, followed by a code for the diabetes with complication (E11.65 for type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia).

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 19: Injury, Poisoning and Certain Other Consequences of External Causes (S00-T88), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.

This scenario describes apalatoplasty(repair of cleft palate) withclosure of the alveolar ridgeusing abone graft. CPT code42210is the code that captures palatoplasty withclosure of the alveolar ridgeand associated bone grafting work as part of the reconstructive procedure described. Because the bone graft is part of the defined palatoplasty service in this code concept, you donotseparately report a generic bone graft harvesting code such as20900in the way the answer options suggest. The distractor42200is associated with a more limited palate repair (not matching the alveolar ridge closure with graft detail), and42205does not reflect the specific alveolar ridge closure with bone grafting described in the question stem. CPC exam strategy: identify the mostcomprehensive cleft palate repairthat matches the documentation; when a CPT code description includes the specific additional work (like alveolar ridge closure with graft), code that single comprehensive service.

Place of Service (POS) codes are two-digit numeric codes used on professional claims to identify where a service was performed (e.g., office, inpatient hospital, outpatient hospital).

Reporting an incorrect POS can affect reimbursement and may result in claim denial ✔

POS codes are not alphanumeric

They describe many locations, not just ICU

POS codes are maintained by CMS, not found in the ICD-10-CM code book

For the procedure involving access to the subclavian vein and advancing a catheter to the inferior vena cava for injection and imaging, the following codes are used:

36010 for the catheter placement.

75825-26 for the supervision and interpretation of the imaging.

Modifier -26 indicates the professional component of the radiological supervision and interpretation.

In this case, a CRNA provided anesthesia for an urgent endoscopic procedure. To select the appropriate codes, we consider both the anesthesia code for the procedures performed and the modifiers relevant to the CRNA’s role and the patient’s physical status:

1. 00813: This CPT® code covers " Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal to duodenum, " which is appropriate since the colonoscopy extended to the ileum and into the lower duodenum. 00731 (anesthesia for upper GI endoscopy) would not fully apply, as the main procedure targeted lower intestinal areas as well.

2. QZ Modifier: Indicates the anesthesia was performed by a CRNA without medical direction by an anesthesiologist, which aligns with the scenario where the CRNA independently administered anesthesia.

3. P3 Modifier: Reflects the physical status of " severe systemic disease " for this patient, as she has both end-stage renal failure and myelodysplastic syndrome.

4. 99100: This code is added to reflect " special anesthesia circumstances " given the patient’s extreme frailty (platelet count of 3,000), which warrants additional consideration.

5. 99140: Used for emergency conditions, which applies here due to the urgent nature of the bleeding investigation.

Thus, 00813-QZ-P3, 99100, 99140 accurately reflects the anesthesia services provided by the CRNA in this emergency scenario.

71048 – Radiologic examination, chest; complete, minimum of 4 views

Includes 6 views

CPT codes are based on ranges, not per-view billing

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

71047 – 2 views only

CPT does not allow “× view” reporting

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

31287 – Nasal/sinus endoscopy, surgical; with sphenoidotomy

Correct because the surgeon performed a surgical endoscopic sphenoidotomy to evaluate and treat sphenoid sinus injury.

No CSF leak repair was performed, so codes 31290–31291 are not appropriate.

31231-59 – Nasal endoscopy, diagnostic

Diagnostic endoscopy is separately reportable because:

It was performed to evaluate traumatic injury

It is not bundled into the surgical service when it provides distinct diagnostic information

Modifier -59 indicates a separate and distinct service per NCCI edits.

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

S02.109A – Unspecified fracture of base of skull, initial encounter for closed fracture

The anterior cranial fossa fracture with sphenoid sinus involvement qualifies as a skull base fracture

No CSF leak is documented

Correct 7th character “A” for initial encounter

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A – Incorrect format and duplicated CPT logic

B – 31267 = maxillary sinus, wrong sinus

D – 31291 includes CSF leak repair, which was not performed

This is adiagnosticmammogram (not screening) performed onone breast (left). CPT distinguishes screening from diagnostic:77067is screening mammography and is not appropriate because there is a symptom (palpable lump) and the service is diagnostic. CPT also distinguishes unilateral vs bilateral diagnostic:77065isdiagnostic mammography, unilateral, and77066is diagnostic mammography, bilateral—so the correct selection is77065. The vignette mentions CAD, but current mammography CPT coding incorporates digital and CAD elements into the diagnostic mammography code structure in typical CPC-style testing, and the question asks which code(s) are reported, offering only single-code answers.77061is not the primary diagnostic mammography code; it relates to breast tomosynthesis add-on concepts in many coding frameworks, but the stem describes diagnostic mammography with additional views, not explicit tomosynthesis reporting. Therefore, for unilateral diagnostic mammography of the left breast, the correct code is77065.

In medical terminology,“-graph”refers to aninstrument used to record(or produce a record), while“-gram”refers to therecord/image produced, and“-graphy”refers to theprocess of recording. This set is frequently tested because the terms look similar. Example: anelectrocardiographis the instrument; anelectrocardiogram (ECG/EKG)is the tracing produced;electrocardiographyis the act of recording. The distractors are surgical suffixes:“-desis”typically indicates surgical binding/fusion, and“-rrhaphy”indicates surgical repair by suture. “Z-plasty” is a plastic surgery technique; “instrument used for Z-plasty” is not a standard suffix definition. For CPC-style questions, the safest approach is to memorize the trio:graph (instrument)/gram (record)/graphy (process). That pattern also helps with radiology terms (mammogram, angiography) and diagnostic testing vocabulary.

99386 = Initial comprehensive preventive medicine E/M, new patient, age 40–64

Patient has not been seen in 4 years, which meets the new patient definition (no professional services in past 3 years).

Age = 63

No problem-oriented complaints → preventive service only

Why others are incorrect:

99396 / 99397 – Established patient codes

99387 – Age 65+

When a prior malignancy has been eradicated and the patient is no longer receiving treatment for the primary site, ICD-10-CM directs you to use apersonal history of malignant neoplasmcode rather than an active primary cancer code. Here, the breast cancer was treated successfully last year and no further therapy was required, so the breast cancer ishistory, not active. The new current condition ismetastatic cancer to the liver, which is coded as asecondary malignant neoplasm of liver and intrahepatic bile duct (C78.7). Because the primary breast cancer is not documented as active or under current treatment, you donotcode an active breast malignancy (C50.-). Instead, you addZ85.3 (personal history of malignant neoplasm of breast)to show the prior cancer history relevant to the current metastatic disease. Option A incorrectly codes a primary liver cancer. Option C incorrectly codes active breast cancer. Option D codes metastasis to the adrenal gland, not the liver.

For a patient diagnosed with sepsis and associated acute respiratory failure, the ICD-10-CM codes are:

A41.9: Sepsis, unspecified organism.

R65.21: Severe sepsis with septic shock.

J96.00: Acute respiratory failure, unspecified whether with hypoxia or hypercapnia.

These codes appropriately capture the severity of the sepsis and the presence of acute respiratory failure.

ICD-10-CM guidelines

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

44212 – Laparoscopic partial colectomy with end colostomy and closure of distal segment (Hartmann-type procedure)

Correct because:

Sigmoid/descending colon resection

Proximal colostomy created

Distal rectal stump closed

44213 – Laparoscopic mobilization of splenic flexure

Separately reportable because:

Mobilization was necessary to exteriorize colon for colostomy

Not bundled into 44212

Modifier not required (no multiple-procedure discount with add-on logic)

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

K57.33 – Diverticulitis of large intestine with perforation and bleeding, without abscess

Documentation supports:

Diverticulitis

Active bleeding

No abscess reported

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A / B – 44206 = colectomy with anastomosis (not performed)

A / B – K57.41 includes abscess (not documented)

C – Missing splenic flexure add-on explanation

CPT® & ICD-10-CM Guideline Alignment:

Hartmann procedure ≠ anastomosis

Bleeding elevates diagnosis specificity

Splenic flexure mobilization is separately reportable when clinically required

Injection of atropine: Atropine is administered to reduce sialorrhea.

Bilateral submandibular salivary glands: The physician administers the injections into the salivary glands.

Total of four glands: Indicates that multiple glands are treated in the same session.

CPT code 64611 accurately represents chemodenervation of the salivary glands, bilateral. The use of -50, -52, or x4 modifiers is not appropriate since CPT guidelines include bilateral procedures in this code without needing additional modifiers or codes.

For Mohs micrographic surgery, CPT® coding is based on the anatomic location of the lesion, the number of stages, and the number of tissue blocks per stage.

17311: This code is used for Mohs surgery on body areas such as the trunk, arms, or legs for the first stage.

17315: This is an add-on code used when more than five tissue blocks are examined in a single stage. Since this case involved six tissue blocks, 17315 is appropriate.

Explanation of incorrect answers:

A. 17313, 17314, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 applies to the head, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia, not the arm.

C. 17313, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 is not appropriate for the arm.

D. 17311, 17312, 17315: 17312 is used for additional stages beyond the first, which is not applicable here since only one stage was performed.

E. 85B2-335 is not a valid CPT code for Mohs surgery.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 17311, 17315, which accurately reflects a single-stage Mohs surgery with six tissue blocks on the arm.

TSH testing is reported with CPT84443. The scenario describes a workup for possible thyroid dysfunction, but there isno confirmed thyroid diagnosisprovided—only symptoms (fatigue and weight gain). In outpatient coding, when a definitive diagnosis is not established, you code thesigns/symptomsthat justify the test. Therefore, the correct ICD-10-CM codes areR53.83(other fatigue) andR63.5(abnormal weight gain), as offered. You shouldnotassign a thyroid disorder code such asE07.9(unspecified disorder of thyroid) unless the provider documents an actual thyroid disorder diagnosis; suspicion alone does not support it in the outpatient setting. Options C and D list84445, which is not the standard CPT code for TSH measurement in CPC exam coding. This question is testing both correct lab code selection and the outpatient guideline principle of codingsymptomswhen the diagnosis is not confirmed. Hence,84443 with R53.83 and R63.5is correct.

36223 = Selective catheterization of common carotid with imaging

36227 ×2 = Bilateral external carotid angiography

The procedure described involves the removal of electrodes from the cranial area after making an incision in the scalp and performing a craniectomy.

Procedure Description:

Incision in the scalp.

Craniectomy to access the area with electrodes.

Removal of electrodes.

Closure of the surgical wound.

CPT® Coding:

61860: Removal of intracranial neurostimulator electrodes, including burr hole(s) or craniectomy.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on neurostimulator procedures.

Blue Cross Blue Shield is a commercial or private payer, which means it is an insurance company that provides health insurance plans to individuals and groups. In contrast, Medicare and Medicaid are government programs, and the Veterans Health Administration (VHA) is a federal healthcare system for military veterans.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Appendix B: Payers and Reimbursement.

The patient with malignant lymphoma is administered Rituximab (800 mg) and Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.

Procedure Description:

Administration of Rituximab (800 mg) intravenously.

Administration of Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.

HCPCS Level II Coding:

J9312: Injection, Rituximab, 10 mg.

For 800 mg, report 80 units of J9312.

J1200: Injection, Diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg.

For 100 mg, report 2 units of J1200.

HCPCS Level II Code Book (current year).

HCPCS Level II coding guidelines for intravenous drug administration.

The urinalysis performed is described asautomated, without microscopy, which corresponds to CPT81003(urinalysis, automated, without microscopy). CPT81001includes microscopy and is not supported because the question explicitly states “without microscopy.” For diagnosis coding, the providersuspecteda UTI, but the urinalysis is negative andUTI is ruled outas the final diagnosis. Under ICD-10-CM reporting principles, conditions documented asruled outarenot codedin the outpatient/office setting; instead, you code thesigns and symptomsthat prompted the visit and testing. The symptoms documented aredysuriaandlower abdominal pain, which are coded asR30.0andR10.30(as presented in the answer choices). Therefore, the correct combination is81003withR30.0andR10.30only. CPC exam tip: outpatient “rule out” → codesymptoms, not the excluded diagnosis.

50236 – Radical nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy and rib resection, open approach

Includes:

Kidney removal

Partial ureter removal

Rib resection

Correct for renal cell carcinoma

Increased complexity due to prior surgery does not change CPT code, but may support modifier -22

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

50545 / 50548 – Laparoscopic/robotic nephrectomy

50225 – Simple nephrectomy (no ureter or rib resection)

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure performed was an evisceration of ocular contents without the placement of an implant. The surgical microscope was used for enhanced visualization, but this does not require a separate code if the primary procedure code includes it inherently.

CPT® Code 65091 is used for an evisceration of the ocular contents without implant placement. This code correctly describes the procedure performed on the left eye.

2. Modifier:

Modifier LT is added to indicate that the procedure was performed on the left eye.

3. Exclusion of Code 69990:

Code 69990 is for the use of an operating microscope, but it should not be billed separately when it is used as part of a procedure where enhanced visualization is typical or expected, such as an evisceration procedure. According to CPT® guidelines, 69990 is not separately reported when the microscope is used for visualization in procedures where its use is considered part of the standard of care.

4. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 65093 is for an evisceration with implant placement, which does not apply since no implant was used.

Options B and C incorrectly include 69990, which is not separately reportable in this scenario.

5. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® coding guidelines, 65091 is sufficient to capture the procedure without the need to add code 69990 for the microscope.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 65091-LT.

Moderate sedation codes are selected by (1)patient ageand (2) whether the sedation is provided by thesame physician performing the procedureor by a different provider. The stem states theorthopedist provides the sedation and the reduction, so the sedation is provided by thesame physicianwho performs the procedure. For age, the patient is5 years old, which falls into the≥5 yearscategory. Therefore, the correct initial moderate sedation code is99152(moderate sedation provided by the same physician/other qualified provider performing the procedure; patient age 5 years or older; initial 15 minutes). The documented time is21 minutes, which supports only theinitialcode (it does not reach the threshold needed to report an additional 15-minute increment add-on). Code99151is for patientsunder 5 years, so it does not apply. Codes99155/99156are for sedation provided by adifferentprovider than the one performing the procedure. CPC exam tip: age cutoffs matter—exactly 5years old uses the “5 years or older” code set.

Warthin ' s tumor, also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, is a benign tumor of the salivary glands, most commonly affecting the parotid gland. It typically presents as a painless, slow-growing mass near the angle of the jaw.

ICD-10-CM, medical dictionaries, and oncology textbooks

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a suppression study involving five glucose tests and five human growth hormone tests.

CPT® Code 80430 represents a suppression panel specifically for growth hormone studies, which includes various assessments for diagnosing abnormal growth.

CPT® Code 82947 is used for each glucose test performed, and since five glucose tests were conducted, it should be coded as 82947 x 5.

CPT® Code 83003 is used for each human growth hormone test performed, and since five tests were conducted, it should be coded as 83003 x 5.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option A lists 82947 x 2 and 83003 without sufficient units to account for the five tests each, which does not match the actual number of tests performed.

Option B omits the suppression panel code 80430, which is necessary for documenting the overall suppression study.

Option D does not provide the correct quantity of glucose and growth hormone tests, which were each performed five times.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, when a suppression panel includes multiple components that are performed more than once, the specific panel code 80430 should be used along with the correct number of individual component codes.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 80430, 82947 x 5, 83003 x 5.

Pressure ulcer excision with bone involvement → CPT 15937 (sacral, with ostectomy)

Stage 4 pressure ulcer → L89.156 (sacral region with necrosis of bone)

Autopsy CPT coding is based on theextent of the examination(gross only vs gross and microscopic) and whether special anatomic components (such asbrain and spinal cord) are included. The question states the pathologist performedboth gross and microscopicexamination and explicitly included thebrain and spinal cord, which indicates acomprehensive autopsyservice rather than a limited or gross-only autopsy. CPT88028represents a complete autopsy with gross and microscopic examination that includes examination of the central nervous system structures (brain and spinal cord) as part of the comprehensive scope. The other codes listed represent different autopsy levels or components that do not match the “gross and microscopic” plus CNS inclusion described. CPC exam approach: anchor first ongross + microscopic(not gross-only), then look for wording that indicates acomplete autopsy. When the stem highlights “brain and spinal cord,” it is signaling the higher-complexity comprehensive autopsy code selection. Therefore,88028is the correct CPT code.

This scenario describesnon-emergencytransportation arranged for a patient who iswheelchair-bound, traveling between a physician’s office and askilled nursing facility. HCPCS Level II includes specific “A” codes for non-emergency transport categories. The code that corresponds tonon-emergency transportation by wheelchair van(i.e., transport appropriate for a wheelchair-bound patient, not requiring an ambulance) isA0130in CPC-style code selection questions. By contrast,A0428/A0429would be ambulance codes (not offered here), and other A-codes in this option set represent different non-emergency transport circumstances (such as general transportation, litter van, or transportation that doesn’t specify wheelchair accommodation). The presence of asocial workerarranging transport and the patient’swheelchair-boundstatus strongly cues awheelchair vanlevel of service rather than ambulance. On the CPC exam, pay close attention to transport level: ambulance implies medical monitoring/medical necessity; wheelchair van implies mobility needs without ambulance-level clinical support. Therefore, the correct HCPCS Level II transportation code isA0130.

The patient has undergone a left total knee arthroplasty and subsequently received a femoral nerve block for postoperative pain management. CPT code 01402 is used for anesthesia for total knee arthroplasty. Code 64447-59-LT is for a femoral nerve block (single injection) for postoperative pain management, with modifier 59 indicating a distinct procedural service and LT indicating the left side. Therefore, the appropriate codes are 01402 and 64447-59-LT.

Personal history codes are not appropriate for every encounter. They are reported only when relevant to the reason for the visit. Therefore, option A is false.

Procedure: Caloric vestibular testing performed on both ears with three irrigations.

CPT® Code:

92537: Caloric vestibular test with recording, bilateral; bithermal (i.e., one warm and one cool irrigation in each ear).

Modifier -50: Bilateral procedure.

Code Selection Justification: The procedure performed was bilateral caloric vestibular testing with bithermal irrigation, appropriately coded with 92537 and modifier -50 for bilateral procedures.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

For ERCP, CPT coding follows the rule that thetherapeutic ERCP code includes the diagnostic ERCP workperformed during the same session. In this case, the key performed service isstent insertion into the biliary duct, which is captured by43274(ERCP with placement of endoscopic stent into biliary or pancreatic duct). You donotseparately report the diagnostic ERCP code43260when the therapeutic service (stent placement) is performed, because the diagnostic component is considered part of the overall ERCP service. Code43276is used forstent removal and/or exchange, which is not described here. Option D is incorrect because it pairs another ERCP service with stent placement, and the scenario does not support multiple distinct ERCP therapeutic services beyond stenting. CPC exam tip: when a single ERCP session includes diagnostic evaluation plus a therapeutic intervention, report themost definitive therapeutic ERCP code—here,43274.

60220 = Total lobectomy, unilateral thyroid

60500 = Parathyroidectomy (single gland)

Modifier -59 is appropriate to indicate a distinct procedure

CPT®: The documentation supports excision of a subcutaneous soft tissue tumor of the hand, size 1.5 cm.

26111 = Excision of tumor/soft tissue of hand or finger, subcutaneous, 1.5 cm or less

26115 would be for a larger size range (not supported by “1.5 cm” in the question).

ICD-10-CM: Pathology confirms subcutaneous hemangioma (benign vascular tumor).

D18.01 = Hemangioma of skin and subcutaneous tissueCodes D21.01/D21.11 are benign neoplasm of connective/soft tissue categories, but the most accurate match here (and the one reflected in the answer choices) is D18.01 for hemangioma of skin/subcutaneous tissue.

Typing correction applied: the options showed “018.01”; the correct ICD-10-CM format is D18.01.

The adenoids, tonsils, appendix, and spleen are all part of the lymphatic system, which plays a crucial role in immune function and the filtration of pathogens. These organs contribute to the body ' s defense by trapping and eliminating bacteria and other pathogens.

Adenoids and tonsils are lymphatic tissues located in the throat and help prevent infection by filtering pathogens from inhaled or ingested particles.

The appendix contains lymphoid tissue and is thought to play a role in gut immunity.

The spleen filters blood, removing old or damaged blood cells and producing lymphocytes for immune response.

The other options are unrelated:

B. Gastrointestinal: Involved in digestion, but not specifically immune response.

C. Cardiovascular: Involved in blood circulation, not immune response.

D. Nervous: Coordinates sensory and motor functions, unrelated to lymphatic tissue.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Lymphatic.

The operative note describes anopen radical hysterectomyfor endometrial cancer with removal of theuterus, tubes, and ovaries(specimens listed) and extensive dissection ofuterine arteries, uterosacral and cardinal ligaments, consistent with aradicalprocedure. The approach is clearlyabdominal/open(midline vertical incision and abdominal entry), not laparoscopic, so a laparoscopic radical hysterectomy code (such as 58548) is not appropriate. In the answer set,58210represents aradical abdominal hysterectomy(with appropriate extent for malignancy management). In addition, the surgeon performedpelvic lymph node samplingbilaterally, removing lymphatic tissue along the iliac vessels to the obturator nerve region. The correct code in the choices for pelvic lymphadenectomy/sampling is38770. Pelvic washings and extensive exploration are included in the primary surgical service and do not add separate CPT codes in this scenario. Therefore, the correct coding combination is58210 and 38770.

C2617 = Implant, sinus, drug-eluting, absorbable

The diagnosis “tracheal stenosis present from birth” is acongenital malformation, which is coded withQ32.1(congenital stenosis of trachea) rather than an acquired tracheal disorder code. For anesthesia coding, tracheoplasty is a major airway/tracheal surgical procedure and maps to the appropriateairway/trachea anesthesiacategory represented by00320in the answer set. Because the patient is aninfant (6 months old), anesthesia qualifies for the extreme age add-on99100(anesthesia for patient of extreme age, under 1 year or over 70 years). Options includingJ39.8reflect an acquired/other tracheal disorder category rather than congenital stenosis, which conflicts with “from birth.” Options that omit 99100 miss the age-related qualifying circumstance. CPC exam strategy: always code congenital conditions withQ-codeswhen documented as present from birth, and remember99100for patients < 1 yearwhen anesthesia qualifying circumstances are reported. Therefore,00320, 99100, Q32.1is correct.

Cesarean Delivery with Antepartum and Postpartum Care: The procedure involved the cesarean section delivery of twins, including antepartum and postpartum care.

CPT Code 59510: This code is used for routine obstetric care including antepartum care, cesarean delivery, and postpartum care. The code is not reported per fetus but per delivery, even when delivering multiples.

CPT® code 49083 describes an abdominal paracentesis with imaging guidance, such as ultrasound. This code includes the imaging guidance as part of the procedure, so it is not necessary to separately report the ultrasonic guidance.

Diabetic polyneuropathy is coded as E11.42, which indicates type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic polyneuropathy. The ICD-10-CM guidelines direct that when a patient has both diabetes and polyneuropathy, a single combination code is used to capture both conditions.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 4: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases (E00-E89), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.a.6.

This question is testing selection of the correcttherapy functional outcome/condition “M-code”used in certain therapy reporting contexts (commonly tied to claims-based data collection requirements and payer-specific reporting rules). The scenario states the patient haslumbar spine region cancerthat isactive and being treated. That points to the M-code option that corresponds tomalignancy affecting the lumbar spine region(as defined in the referenced reporting framework used in CPC-style questions). Among the listed options,M1037is the correct lumbar-spine-associated condition code foractive cancerinvolvement impacting the lumbar region. The key differentiator is “actively being treated,” which aligns with a current active condition, not history of cancer or a nonmalignant condition. The distractors (M1038, M1039, M1041) represent different lumbar-associated condition categories and are included to test whether you can map the clinical statement (active lumbar cancer) to the correct M-code. Therefore, the correct selection isM1037.

A diagnostic mammogram performed on both breasts with computer-aided detection (CAD) is reported with CPT® code 77066. This code is used when CAD is utilized to further analyze the images for possible lesions, and it covers both breasts.

93454 = Coronary angiography

R07.9 = Chest pain, unspecified

CAD code is not reported when ruled out

The procedure involves a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy and removal of a cholesteatoma from the middle ear, including grafting of the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.

Procedure Description:

Tympanoplasty.

Radical mastoidectomy.

Removal of cholesteatoma from the middle ear.

Grafting technique used to repair the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.

CPT® Coding:

69645: Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty, atticotomy and/or middle ear surgery), radical or complete, with removal of cholesteatoma; with mastoid obliteration.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on otolaryngology procedures.

Basal cell carcinoma is amalignantskin neoplasm, so the excision is coded from11600–11646(malignant lesion excision), not11400–11446(benign lesion excision). The scalp is in the anatomic group that includesscalp/neck/hands/feet/genitalia, and the excised diameterincluding marginsdetermines the malignant excision code range. A size of3.7 cmfalls into the3.1–4.0 cmcategory, which corresponds to11624for malignant excision in that location group. Closure is separately reportable when it is anintermediate (layered) repair, so you add12032(intermediate repair, scalp/axillae/trunk/extremities;2.6–7.5 cm) when documentation supports layered closure beyond simple repair. Diagnosis coding should reflectbasal cell carcinoma of scalp/neck, which isC44.41. Options that use benign excision or benign diagnosis codes are incorrect for basal cell carcinoma.

94060 = Spirometry pre- and post-bronchodilator

94010 = Baseline spirometry

J45.21 = Mild intermittent asthma with exacerbation

The operative service is anamputation of the left third toe at the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. CPT28820describes toe amputationthrough the MTP joint, matching the “amputation at the metatarsophalangeal joint” language and the incision encircling the joint with removal of the toe after dividing tendons/ligaments. ModifierT2correctly identifies theleft foot, third digit. Diagnosis coding must capture the ischemic disease withgangreneplus thenon-pressure chronic ulceron the toe. In the answer set,I70.262represents lower-extremity atherosclerosis/PVDwith gangrene(left side per the option). The chronic ulcer is separately reported using the providedL97.528non-pressure ulcer code for the left foot/toe severity category offered by the choices. Antibiotic prophylaxis (Ancef), anesthesia type, tourniquet use/time, and technique details support the procedure but do not change the core CPT/ICD-10-CM selection. Therefore, the correct combination is28820-T2, I70.262, L97.528.

Procedure: Albumin Cobalt Binding (ACB) test to determine ischemic nature of chest pain.

CPT® Code:

83857: This code is used for the Albumin Cobalt Binding test.

Code Selection Justification: The ACB test specifically measures ischemia-modified albumin, making 83857 the appropriate code for this laboratory test.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

59821 – Induced abortion, by vaginal suppository, amniotic fluid injection, or other medical means

Used for fetal demise at ≥14 weeks gestation

Labor was medically induced and fetus delivered

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

O36.4XX0 – Maternal care for intrauterine death, not applicable or unspecified

Correct maternal record diagnosis

Z3A.19 – 19 weeks gestation

Required per ICD-10-CM guidelines for obstetric encounters

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A / D – ICD-9 code (002.1) is invalid

C – Missing required gestational age code

Formultiple gestation vaginal deliveries, CPT global obstetric care is generally reported as the global code for thefirst fetus(here59400: antepartum + vaginal delivery + postpartum), and an additionaldelivery-onlycode for each additional fetus (here59409) with an appropriate modifier (commonly-51in exam-style choices). You donotreport59400 twicebecause the global package is not duplicated for each baby; only the additional delivery service is added for the additional fetus. Diagnosis coding: this is atwin pregnancy, dichorionic/diamniotic, third trimester→O30.043. Delivery outcome for twins →Z37.2, and weeks of gestation →Z3A.36. Because delivery occurred at36 weeks(preterm threshold is < 37 weeks), and the options use thepreterm labor with preterm deliverycategory with fetus identifiers, the correct pairing shown isO60.14X1 and O60.14X2(fetus 1 and fetus 2). Option D is the only one matching correct CPT multiple-delivery structure and appropriate diagnosis set.

The Office of Inspector General (OIG) provides compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for provider practices. This guidance is intended to help healthcare providers develop effective internal controls to monitor adherence to applicable statutes, regulations, and program requirements of Federal healthcare programs. The OIG issues various compliance guidelines and resources to assist organizations in establishing comprehensive compliance programs to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse.

OIG Compliance Program Guidance, AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition, and healthcare compliance resources.

The procedure performed is a bilateral screening mammogram with computer-aided detection (CAD). CPT code 77067 is for bilateral screening mammography with CAD. ICD-10-CM code Z12.31 is for an encounter for screening mammogram for malignant neoplasm of the breast. Z80.3 is for a family history of malignant neoplasm of the breast. Therefore, the correct coding is 77067, Z12.31, Z80.3. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), ICD-10-CM (current year).

CPT® code 46255 describes the excision of both internal and external hemorrhoids, which matches the procedure described. The ICD-10-CM codes K64.0 (First degree hemorrhoids) and K64.4 (Residual hemorrhoids) describe the conditions treated.

Omalizumab is a drug reported withHCPCS J2357, and the dose is converted into billable units based on the code’s unit definition. In CPC-style questions,150 mgis commonly represented asJ2357 × 30 units(i.e., 5 mg per unit → 150/5 = 30). Administration is atherapeutic subcutaneous injection, reported with96372(therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic injection; subcutaneous or intramuscular). Vaccine administration codes (90460/90471) are not appropriate because omalizumab is not a vaccine. For diagnosis, the statement includesstatus asthmaticusbut does not specify severity category (mild/moderate/severe persistent). In the options provided,J45.902is the “unspecified asthma with status asthmaticus” concept, whereas J45.52 requires severe persistent asthma with status asthmaticus (not documented). Therefore, the correct pairing is96372 + J2357 × 30 + J45.902. CPC exam tip: match administration code type (therapeutic injection vs immunization) and choose the most specific ICD-10-CM supported by documentation.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent venous thrombosis imaging of each leg to assess for deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

CPT® Code 78457 is used for a venous thrombosis imaging study. This code is appropriate for imaging to detect DVT.

Modifier 50 is applied to indicate a bilateral procedure, as imaging was performed on both legs.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code I82.403 is used for acute embolism and thrombosis of unspecified deep veins of bilateral lower extremities. This code accurately describes the finding of DVT in both legs.

Other ICD-10-CM options, such as I82.401 and I82.402, specify unilateral lower extremity involvement, which does not accurately reflect the bilateral findings in this case.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 78458 (in options A and D) is for a more comprehensive study, often cardiac or whole-body blood pool imaging, and is not specific to leg venous thrombosis.

Option C, which lists 78457 with individual RT and LT modifiers, is incorrect as Modifier 50 is appropriate for bilateral imaging on both legs.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 78457 with Modifier 50 should be used for bilateral venous imaging studies, and I82.403 correctly captures bilateral DVT.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 78457-50, I82.403.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The otolaryngologist was asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination of the patient under general anesthesia to evaluate for injuries sustained from a traumatic fall.

CPT® Code 92502 is appropriate for a general otolaryngologic examination under general anesthesia. This code is used specifically when an ENT examination is performed under anesthesia, as was the case here.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 92512 is for nasal function studies, such as rhinomanometry, which does not apply to a general otolaryngologic examination.

Code 21310 is for the treatment of a nasal fracture (closed treatment), which would only be appropriate if the otolaryngologist had performed a fracture reduction or repair. Since only an examination was performed, 21310 is not appropriate.

Code 92502-51 (option B) is incorrect because the -51 modifier (multiple procedures) is unnecessary; only a single examination was performed.

3. ICD-10-CM Code:

Since only the examination was performed and not treatment, the ICD-10-CM code for nasal fracture (likely S02.2XXA for unspecified fracture of the nasal bones, initial encounter) would be reported separately by the facility or based on final documentation.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines support the use of 92502 for general ENT examinations performed under anesthesia, especially in cases of trauma evaluation without surgical intervention.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 92502.

This service is alumbar discographyat a single level (L3–L4) withinjection of contrastinto the intervertebral disc underfluoroscopic (C-arm) guidancewhile the patient is awake/able to report symptoms, which is exactly what CPT62290describes for diagnostic discography at a lumbar level. CPT62292is used for discography in a different spinal region (and is not supported by the “L3–4” lumbar level stated multiple times). The post-discography CT scan is referenced as planned/reviewed but is not clearly documented as performed/interpreted as part of this same physician service in the stem, and it is not part of the answer choices. For ICD-10-CM, the confirmed postoperative finding is “normal discography,” but the reason for the study remains the patient’slow back painand suspected stenosis; in outpatient/procedural settings you code thereason for the testwhen the definitive suspected condition is not confirmed. Here, the stenosis was ruled out (“no evidence”), so donotcode spinal stenosis; reportM54.50for low back pain. Therefore,62290 with M54.50is correct.

69209 = Cerumen removal using irrigation

69210 = Cerumen removal using instrumentation

Different techniques on different ears require separate codes with laterality modifiers

Procedure: Abdominal aorta catheterization and selective placement in the celiac trunk for angiography.

CPT® Codes:

36246: This code is for the catheter placement in the abdominal aorta.

75726-26: This code represents the abdominal angiography with supervision and interpretation, with the -26 modifier indicating the professional component.

Code Selection Justification: The procedure involves the catheterization of the abdominal aorta and the specific imaging performed with supervision and interpretation.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

Pregnancy guidelines require O codes first.

O98.513 = COVID-19 infection complicating pregnancy, third trimester

U07.1 = COVID-19

Z3A.32 = 32 weeks gestation

Symptoms (SOB, fever) are not coded separately when integral to COVID-19.

Correct sequencing makes A correct.

In medical billing, Place of Service (POS) code 31 is used to indicate that a service was performed in a skilled nursing facility (SNF). POS codes are standardized by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) to specify the location where services are provided.

A. 32 refers to a nursing facility (NF), which is different from a skilled nursing facility in terms of the level of care provided.

B. 20 indicates urgent care facility.

C. 22 is used for outpatient hospital services.

Thus, the correct answer is D. 31 for a skilled nursing facility.

Dr. Burns is providing initial hospital or birthing center care for the evaluation and management of a normal newborn infant. CPT code 99460 is used to report initial hospital or birthing center care, per day, for evaluation and management of a normal newborn infant. This includes a comprehensive history, examination, and medical decision-making. The description of the service provided fits this CPT code accurately. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), AMA.

Procedure: Hepatitis B vaccine administration for a Medicare patient on dialysis.

CPT® and HCPCS Codes:

G0010: Administration of Hepatitis B vaccine.

90740: Hepatitis B vaccine, dialysis or immunosuppressed patient dosage, 3-dose schedule.

ICD-10-CM Codes:

Z23: Encounter for immunization.

N18.6: End-stage renal disease.

Z99.2: Dependence on renal dialysis.

Code Selection Justification: G0010 is used for the administration of the vaccine for Medicare patients, and 90740 captures the specific vaccine for dialysis patients. The ICD-10 codes represent the encounter for vaccination and the patient ' s dialysis status.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

In this encounter, the correct coding order follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for coding multiple conditions when AIDS (B20) is documented, as it takes precedence. The patient ' s diagnosis of AIDS, documented with code B20, is reported as the primary diagnosis since it is a chronic condition. The M17.31 code is used to document unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, unrelated to AIDS but causing the patient ' s knee pain.

Explanation of each answer choice:

A. B20, M17.31: Correctly lists AIDS (B20) as the primary diagnosis and osteoarthritis of the right knee (M17.31) as the secondary diagnosis.

B. Z21, M08.861: Z21 represents asymptomatic HIV, not AIDS, which is incorrect here, and M08.861 is the code for juvenile idiopathic arthritis, not relevant in this case.

C. M17.11, B20: Incorrect as M17.11 is for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, not left, and does not prioritize B20 as required.

D. M17.31, B20: Incorrect because it does not list B20 as the primary diagnosis, which is necessary per coding guidelines when AIDS is documented.

Thus, the correct answer is A. B20, M17.31.

The knee joint consists of three primary compartments:

1. Medial compartment: The inside part of the knee, which includes the femur and tibia interaction on the inner side.

2. Lateral compartment: The outside part of the knee, where the femur and tibia meet on the outer side.

3. Patellofemoral compartment: The area between the patella (kneecap) and the femur.

These three compartments are essential for knee joint stability and function, allowing movement and weight-bearing activities.

B. Trochlea groove and vestibular are not associated with knee anatomy.

C. Posterior malleolus, scapula, and fibular facet do not relate to knee compartments; the malleolus is in the ankle, scapula in the shoulder, and fibular facet is not part of the primary knee compartments.

D. Cochlea is unrelated to knee anatomy and refers to a part of the inner ear.

Thus, the correct answer is A. Medial, lateral, and patellofemoral.

CPT Code 00811: Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal to the splenic flexure; diagnostic, with or without collection of specimen(s) by brushing or washing

This code is reported for anesthesia services provided during a colonoscopy that is diagnostic in nature.

ICD-10-CM Code D62: Acute posthemorrhagic anemia

This is the most accurate postoperative diagnosis. The operative report states " Anemia due to acute blood loss. "

ICD-10-CM Code N18.6: End stage renal disease

This code captures the patient ' s documented history of ESRD.

ICD-10-CM Code Z99.2: Dependence on renal dialysis

This code is necessary to report the patient ' s dialysis status, as it affects the overall risk of the procedure.

Why other options are incorrect:

00812: This code is for therapeutic colonoscopies, not diagnostic.

D64.9: This code is for anemia, unspecified. D62 is more specific to the patient ' s condition.

K62.5: This code is for lower gastrointestinal bleeding, but the anemia is the primary diagnosis in this case.

The described scope reaches thesigmoid colon, which is consistent with aflexible sigmoidoscopyrather than a full colonoscopy. The key therapeutic action is that the polyps were treated byablation(destruction), not snare excision or biopsy. CPT45346represents flexible sigmoidoscopy withablationof tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s). You report the sigmoidoscopy ablation codeoncefor the session; you do not multiply it by the number of polyps unless CPT instructions explicitly direct unit reporting (which is not the standard approach for these endoscopic therapeutic codes). For diagnosis, polyps in thesigmoid colonare coded asK63.5 (polyp of colon).K62.1is arectal polypcode and does not fit because the polyps are in the sigmoid colon. Therefore,45346withK63.5is correct. CPC exam tip: match thescope extent(sigmoid) and theremoval method(ablation).

For a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis performed during the same surgical session, the correct CPT® codes are:

1. 19303-50: This code represents a complete mastectomy (removal of breast tissue) performed bilaterally (indicated by the -50 modifier).

2. 19340-50: This code is for the immediate insertion of a breast prosthesis following mastectomy, also performed bilaterally.

Explanation of other options:

A. 19303-50, 19342-50: Incorrect because 19342 is for the insertion of a breast implant, which differs from a prosthesis.

B. 19305-50, 19340-50: 19305 describes a modified radical mastectomy, which is more extensive than what is documented here.

C. 19325-50: This code represents a breast augmentation procedure, not a mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.

Thus, the correct answer is D. 19303-50, 19340-50, which accurately describes a bilateral mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.

The CPT code 31625 is used for bronchoscopy with a transbronchial lung biopsy. This includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance, as described in the scenario.

The gallbladder is part of the digestive system. It stores and concentrates bile, which aids in the digestion of fats.

It works closely with the liver and biliary tract, all of which belong to the digestive system, making C the correct answer.

88299 = Unlisted cytogenetic study

Other unlisted codes are for chemistry, immunology, or pathology

A41.52 = Sepsis due to Enterococcus.

When the organism is specified, a combination code is used.

No additional code for severe sepsis is documented.

This is destruction of malignant lesions (SCC).

17261 = Malignant lesion destruction, trunk/arms/legs, 0.6–1.0 cm

17262 = Same location, 1.1–2.0 cm

Feet are included in trunk/arms/legs.

Therefore, 17262, 17261 is correct.

Esotropia of the right eye: Indicates strabismus surgery is required.

Resection of medial rectus horizontal and lateral rectus muscles: Specific muscles addressed during the surgery.

Adjustable sutures: Used in securing the muscles, indicating specific techniques.

Extensive scar tissue from previous surgery: Requires additional work and isolation.

CPT codes 67314 and 67334 are used to report the resection of two muscles with adjustable sutures (67314) and surgery on an extraocular muscle involving extensive scar tissue (67334).

For a procedure involving the placement of a 6-French sheath and catheter into the coronary artery, advancing to the left ventricle, performing ventriculography with power injection of contrast agent, obtaining pressures in the left heart, and imaging the coronary arteries, the correct CPT® code is 93458. This code includes all the components of the described procedure.

The procedure described is flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsy (biopsy taken from the bronchi/bronchial tubes).

31625 = Bronchoscopy, flexible, with biopsy (single or multiple)

Important CPC concept: when the CPT® descriptor is “single or multiple”, you code it once, even if multiple biopsies are taken.

31628 is for transbronchial lung biopsy, which is not what is described (the question specifies bronchial tubes/bronchial biopsies).Therefore, A is correct.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure involves a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy to remove a cholesteatoma in the middle ear. Additionally, the procedure includes ossicular chain reconstruction and grafting to repair the eardrum.

CPT® Code 69646 is appropriate for tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy, including removal of the cholesteatoma and ossicular chain reconstruction. This code accurately describes the combination of tympanoplasty, radical mastoidectomy, and ossicular chain reconstruction, making it the correct choice.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 69643 describes a tympanoplasty with a simple mastoidectomy, which is not appropriate since a radical mastoidectomy was performed.

Code 69645 covers a tympanoplasty with radical mastoidectomy but does not include ossicular chain reconstruction, which was part of this procedure.

Code 69641 is for a tympanoplasty without mastoidectomy, making it incorrect for this case.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 69646 is the appropriate code when a tympanoplasty includes a radical mastoidectomy with ossicular chain reconstruction, as documented in this case.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® guidelines is D. 69646.

Established patient with moderate MDM

99214 aligns with CPC exam standards

52356 = Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy, lithotripsy and stent placement

Combination code → do not report components separately

69642 = Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy and ossicular chain reconstruction

Other codes represent variations without ossicular reconstruction or canal wall work

In the CPT® code book, code 35860 describes an " Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection " in multiple areas, specifically including the neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity. This code is used when a surgeon explores these areas postoperatively to locate and address complications such as bleeding, clots, or infections.

B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fully encompass all the areas listed in the actual description of CPT® code 35860, which includes all four regions (neck, chest, abdomen, and extremity).

Thus, the correct answer is A. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity.

Modifier -53 = Discontinued procedure after anesthesia and/or incision due to patient safety

-74 is used by facility, not physician

-52 is for reduced services, not discontinued procedures

Service location = campground → domiciliary/home visit

Patient is new

99344 = New patient domiciliary visit, moderate MDM

Prolonged Services:

Additional 25 minutes beyond base time

99417 is used for prolonged services with office/home E/M codes

Why others are incorrect:

99349 – Established patient

99204 – Office visit (wrong location)

A tympanoplasty repairs aperforated tympanic membrane. The key phrase “doesnotremove the mastoid” means this istympanoplasty without mastoidectomy, which is correctly represented by69631in the answer set. Codes that include mastoid work (or represent different tympanoplasty variants) are incorrect because the documentation explicitly states the mastoid was not removed. Diagnosis coding should reflect both thechronic otitis mediaand theperforation. In the options,H66.92represents otitis media (as offered) andH72.92represents perforation of the tympanic membrane (as offered). Although the clinical story specifies the left ear, the provided diagnosis options do not include laterality; on CPC-style questions, you choose the best match among the answer choices. Therefore, the correct combination within this question’s choices is69631 with H66.92 and H72.92, matching tympanoplasty without mastoidectomy plus the documented conditions.

The prefix “sub-” means below or under.

Common examples include subcutaneous (below the skin) and sublingual (under the tongue).

This is a core concept tested under medical terminology on the CPC exam.

The Schede thoracoplasty for empyema is accurately described by CPT code 32905, which covers the radical procedure involving the resection of multiple ribs and often the obliteration of the pleural cavity to treat chronic empyema.

1. E/M Code Category Selection:

The patient is a 19-year-old seen by his primary care physician for an annual preventive exam. His last exam was four years ago, and he has no complaints, indicating a preventive rather than problem-focused visit.

CPT® Code 99385 is for a new patient preventive visit for ages 18-39. Since the patient’s last visit was four years ago, this qualifies him as a new patient by CPT® standards (a patient is considered new if they have not received any professional services from the physician within the past three years).

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 99395 is for an established patient preventive visit for ages 18-39, which does not apply here since the patient is considered new after four years.

Code 99394 is for a preventive visit for an established patient aged 12-17, which does not match the patient’s age.

Code 99384 is for a new patient preventive visit for ages 12-17, which also does not apply given the patient’s age of 19.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to CPT® guidelines, 99385 is appropriate for a new patient in the 18-39 age range for a preventive visit, especially when they have not seen the provider in over three years.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 99385.

00537 – Anesthesia for electrophysiologic procedures including ablation

Patient is otherwise healthy → P1

Why others are incorrect:

00532 – Pacemaker insertion

01922 – MRI

01026 – Lower extremity procedures

Fascia debridement → 11043 (first 20 sq cm)

Subcutaneous debridement → 11042

Multiple anatomical sites → Modifier -59

Add-on code 11045 for additional subcutaneous surface area

Complex (arm, 4 cm) → 13121

Intermediate legs total = 20.5 cm → 12036

Simple face closures coded separately:

12013 (cheek)

12011 (nose)

Modifiers allow separate anatomical reporting.

Correct answer: A

Procedure Coding:

56633 – Radical vulvectomy (removal of > 80%), including deep subcutaneous tissue

Documentation supports greater than 80% vulvar removal

Deep tissue involvement confirms radical procedure

Diagnosis Coding:

D07.1 – Carcinoma in situ of vulva

VIN III = high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

Classified as carcinoma in situ, not benign dysplasia

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

56620 / 56625 / 56630 – Partial or simple vulvectomy

N90.1 – Mild vulvar dysplasia (incorrect severity)

ICD-10-CM Official Guideline:

VIN III is coded as D07.1, not N90.x.

For a patient with a mass in the left lower lung suspected to be cancer that is currently documented as a tumor of uncertain behavior, with existing ovarian cancer with metastases to the liver, the ICD-10-CM codes are:

D38.1: Neoplasm of uncertain behavior of bronchus and lung.

C56.9: Malignant neoplasm of unspecified ovary.

C78.7: Secondary malignant neoplasm of liver and intrahepatic bile duct.

D38.1 is used because the behavior of the lung tumor is uncertain, and C56.9 and C78.7 are used to document the known primary and metastatic cancers.

ICD-10-CM guidelines

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

The spleen is a part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for filtering blood, removing damaged blood cells, and supporting immune function. The spleen contains lymphocytes that help fight infections and regulate the immune response.

A. Nervous: The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, unrelated to immune function.

B. Endocrine: The endocrine system regulates hormones through glands like the thyroid and pancreas, not directly involved with blood filtration or immune cell production.

C. Digestive: While the spleen is located near digestive organs, it does not play a role in digestion.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Lymphatic.

“Nephr/o” is the combining form meaningkidney, and “-logy” meansstudy of. Therefore,nephrologyis the medical specialty focused on the kidneys—normal kidney function, kidney diseases, and their medical management. In CPC-style terminology questions, look for the body-system root first (nephr = kidney) and then confirm the suffix. This differs fromurology, which is a surgical specialty addressing the urinary tract and male reproductive system. Endocrinology relates to hormones and glands, neurology relates to the nervous system, and cardiology relates to the heart. A quick word-building check helps avoid distractors: nephrology = kidney; cardiology = heart; neurology = nerves/brain; endocrinology = endocrine glands. On the CPC exam, recognizing common combining forms (nephr/o, ren/o) and suffix patterns (-logy, -itis, -ectomy) is a frequent testing strategy, so anchoring on “nephr” reliably identifies the correct specialty.

00813 = Anesthesia for colonoscopy

QK = Medical direction of 2–4 cases

99100 = Extreme age

99140 = Emergency anesthesia

This scenario involves anon-pressure chronic ulcerwithgangrene. For non-pressure chronic ulcers of thethigh, ICD-10-CM usesL97.1-codes. “Fat layer exposed” indicatesseverity with fat layer exposed, which corresponds to the specific 6th character level (not just skin breakdown). The correct thigh code here isL97.112(non-pressure chronic ulcer of right thigh with fat layer exposed). Because the ulcer is described asgangrenous, ICD-10-CM instructs tocode additional gangreneusingI96when gangrene is present with an L97 non-pressure ulcer. Sequencing places the ulcer code first (it fully describes site and depth), then the gangrene codeI96as additional. ThereforeI96 + L97.112are both required, and the correct option presented isI96, L97.112(Option C). Mnemonic:L97 = Location/Layer,I96 = Ischemic gangrene add-on.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The cardiologist provided remote monitoring over a 30-day period for a hemodynamic pulmonary artery pressure monitor implanted in a patient with congestive heart failure.

CPT® Code 93264 is appropriate for remote monitoring of a hemodynamic system for up to 30 days. This code includes services such as weekly data transmissions, interpretation, trend analysis, and reporting—exactly as described in this case.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 93286 is for in-person interrogation and programming of pacemakers or defibrillators, not for remote monitoring of a hemodynamic monitor, making it incorrect.

Code 93288 is for interrogation device evaluation (remote), specifically for pacemakers or defibrillators, and does not apply to a pulmonary artery pressure monitor.

Code 93279 is for in-person programming of certain cardiac devices, which does not match the remote monitoring described in this scenario.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT® guidelines specify that 93264 is the correct code when reporting remote hemodynamic monitoring for a pulmonary artery pressure device over a period of up to 30 days, including data review and interpretation.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. 93264.

CPT70450describes aCT of the head/brain without contrast. When aradiology facilityperforms the technical portion (scanner, technologist, supplies) and theprovider only interprets and reportsthe study, the provider bills theprofessional componentusing modifier-26. That is exactly what the vignette describes: the radiology facility performed the scan, and the provider received images and provided the interpretation—so the provider reports70450-26. Reporting70450alone would imply billing the global service (professional + technical), which would be incorrect because the provider did not supply the equipment/technical resources. Modifier-TCis used to bill thetechnical component, which would be reported by the facility, not the interpreting provider in this scenario. Modifier-26-TCtogether is not appropriate because it would contradict itself (professional and technical simultaneously). CPC exam tip: always determinewho performedthe technical work andwho interpreted; then use-26for interpretation-only billing.

Melanoma is a malignant neoplasm of melanocytes, which are pigment-producing cells found primarily in the skin. It is one of the most serious forms of skin cancer and is classified under ICD-10-CM category C43.- (Malignant melanoma of skin).

Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor of bone, not skin (ICD-10-CM C40–C41).

Hemangioma is a benign tumor of blood vessels and is not malignant (often coded under D18.-).

Lymphoma is a malignancy of the lymphatic system, not a primary skin neoplasm (ICD-10-CM C81–C85), though rare cutaneous lymphomas exist, they are not the standard CPC exam answer here.

Brackets [ ] in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index are used to identify manifestation codes.

These codes cannot be reported as the principal diagnosis and must be sequenced after the underlying condition.

This is a frequently tested ICD-10-CM guideline concept.

80143 = Acetaminophen level

80324/80329 = Drug classes, not specific analytes

80299 = Unlisted therapeutic drug assay

When a therapeutic colonoscopy is attempted but does not reach the cecum, it is considered an incomplete procedure. According to the CPT® Colonoscopy Decision Tree, if the colonoscopy extends beyond the splenic flexure but does not reach the cecum, the appropriate way to code this incomplete colonoscopy is by appending modifier 53 to indicate a discontinued procedure due to extenuating circumstances or risk to the patient.

A. 45378-53 is the correct answer as it designates a diagnostic colonoscopy with modifier 53, signifying that the procedure was started but not completed.

B. 45330 is incorrect as it represents a sigmoidoscopy, which only goes up to the splenic flexure.

C. 45331-45347 refers to therapeutic colonoscopies that were completed to the cecum.

D. 45379-45398 with modifier 52 is incorrect because modifier 52 is used for reduced services, which does not accurately describe an incomplete colonoscopy.

Thus, the correct answer is A. 45378-53.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The test ordered is a bile acid quantitation using an enzymatic method. This test measures the total bile acids in a patient with chronic hepatitis.

CPT® Code 82248 is specific for quantitation of bile acids, total, which is the correct code for a bile acid test using any method, including enzymatic.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 82247 is used for the measurement of bilirubin, not bile acids, making it inappropriate for this test.

Code 82239 is for measuring an amino acid (gamma-glutamyl transferase), which is unrelated to bile acid quantitation.

Code 82252 is for a fecal bile acid screening, which is different from a quantitation of bile acids in serum or plasma.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 82248 should be selected for total bile acid quantitation regardless of the specific analytical method used.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 82248.

To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).

History:

The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.

Examination:

The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (appears tired).

Medical Decision Making:

The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem (shortness of breath and weakness) with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.

Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.

Why other options are incorrect:

99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.

99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM (moderate or high complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn ' t support this level of service.

99222: This code is used for initial hospital care, per day, for the evaluation and management of a patient, which requires a detailed or comprehensive history, a detailed or comprehensive examination, and medical decision making of moderate complexity.

The documentation shows a detailed history (including HPI, ROS, PMH, SH, and FH) and a detailed examination (covering multiple organ systems). The medical decision making involves the management of an acute asthma exacerbation, which includes admitting the patient to observation status, administering oral steroids, and planning for further diagnostic testing.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

When hypertension and heart disease are documented together, a cause-and-effect relationship is presumed unless stated otherwise.

Category I11 (Hypertensive heart disease) is used.

Additional codes from I50.- (heart failure) are assigned if applicable.

This follows ICD-10-CM Official Coding Guidelines.

For a patient in observation care, selecting the correct E/M codes requires evaluating each day ' s service level and the provider ' s documentation.

Day 1: The patient was admitted for observation, and the physician prescribed IV and SQ insulin, noting diabetes with hyperglycemia requiring complex management. The CPT® code 99235 is appropriate here because it represents an initial observation or inpatient care for patients with high-complexity medical decision-making (MDM), which aligns with the patient ' s unstable glucose and the management requirements.

Day 2: The patient ' s glucose levels improved, and the provider documented spending 25 minutes with the patient in continued observation care. Since this is an established patient with continued observation, 99231 applies here, indicating subsequent observation care with low MDM complexity.

Day 3: The provider documented spending 15 minutes with the patient, whose glucose levels normalized, and then discharged the patient from observation care. Code 99238 is used for a discharge from observation care and is selected based on discharge times under 30 minutes.

These codes were selected based on CPT® guidelines for observation care and the provider’s time-based documentation. This matches the medical decision complexity documented per the case and code descriptions available for observation care management.

The correct ICD-10-CM coding for this patient is B20, M54.50. The first code, B20, is used for HIV disease, which is a confirmed diagnosis of HIV infection. It’s important to note that this code can be used regardless of whether the patient is symptomatic or asymptomatic, as long as the patient has been diagnosed with HIV.

The second code, M54.50, refers to low back pain, which would be used to report the loin pain described by the patient. " Loin pain " typically refers to pain in the lower back area, and this code specifically covers the general category of low back pain not otherwise specified.

The other options are not as accurate:

A (B20, M54.9) includes a nonspecific code for back pain (M54.9), which does not fully specify the pain’s location.

B (M54.51, B20) incorrectly includes a code for thoracic or lumbar radiculopathy (M54.51), which is not indicated here.

D (M54.50, B20) is similar to the correct answer, but it incorrectly lists the codes in reverse order. It is important to list the HIV diagnosis first in ICD-10-CM.

Reference topics: ICD-10-CM Coding for HIV Disease; Pain Coding

A suppression study is adynamic endocrine testinvolving serial measurements over time. CPT80430represents thesuppression function testitself (the study framework), while the individual lab analytes measured during the test are reported with their specific assay codes based on the test protocol. The scenario includesfive glucose testsandfive human growth hormone (HGH) testsperformed as part of the study. Glucose testing is reported with82947per test, and growth hormone testing is reported with83003per test. Because the stem specifiesfive of each, correct reporting includes80430plus82947 × 5and83003 × 5. Options that report only one unit of 82947/83003 (or reduce the number of tests) fail to reflect the documented serial testing frequency. CPC exam tip: when a dynamic study is described, do not stop at the function test code—also capture theserial analyte measurementswhen the question explicitly provides the number of lab draws/tests. Therefore, the correct coding is80430, 82947 × 5, 83003 × 5.